So I’m reading this article, and this wee footnote catches my attention:
* The masculine pronoun is used for the sake of brevity. It refers to both genres, of course.
It was referring to this sentence:
that is, for him* who is teaching to learn and for him who is learning to teach
For the sake of brevity, the feminine pronoun is left out — ‘him’ is used in place of ‘him or her’, or, in a more egalitarian manner, ‘the person’.
But that’s just an excuse, even (especially?) for a wordsmith. Why, you say?
“…that is, for one who is teaching to learn and the one who is learning to teach…”
One more letter. And it doesn’t sound too bad, either.